I own a property that I rent out in England and that I may want to sell in a couple of years. Trouble is I am getting very confused by the CGT requirements. I emailed the Inland Revenue and got a very cryptic response! My house has equity of about 100k at the moment, my mum and nan hold a charge on the property because they helped me buy it when I was getting divorced from my first husband. I am looking at either selling and buying elsewhere so that I have a mortgage free home or selling and buying somewhere where my husband and I want to retire to when he gets out the army.
I am a qualified mortgage advisor, but it has been a while since I have been able to practise my advice and was hoping someone could give me a clarity on this subject.
Sam x



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